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A logical analysis of the claim of Islam being final and only revelation of Allah by Vixter – an active member of Agniveer site:We often hear the followers of Mian Zakir Naik claiming that Islam has not come into existence 1400 years ago, but it has been there since time memorial. They also say that Islam was not founded by Muhammad rather it is there from the day when Adam and Eve were sent down to earth. But when they are asked that if Islam has nothing to do with Muhammad, why is it necessary to believe in Muhammad and include him in the prayers alongside Allah, they run away saying Allah knows the best and Muhammad is his final messenger!

The above claim of Islam to be the only religion from the time memorial could have only been true only if the condition to be a good Muslim would have never changed along the time, but it did. Back then, anyone who worshipped one formless God was a Muslim (Adam, Abraham, Moses, etc), but today, not only a person must worship one formless Allah (interestingly, formless Allah has two hands as per Quran [38:75]), but must also consider prophet Mohammad as the final messenger and must believe in angels, Quran, judgment day, heaven, and hell as well in order to reserve the seat in paradise.

Now, if Islam really existed since time memorial, one may ask, how is this possible when the oldest Quran is less than 2000 years old? Should not the age of Quran be more than 2000 years old in order to make Islam a religion which existed since time memorial?

In order to refute this claim, many Muslims quote the following verse from Quran, “We did send messengers before thee, and appointed for them wives and children: and it was never the part of an apostle to bring a sign except as Allah permitted (or commanded). For each period is a Book (revealed) [Surah Rad, verse 13:38].”

This verse is saying that Allah sent revelations in every era, and revealed them to a different prophet each time. This means many revelations were sent but only four are mentioned by name: Torah (taurat), Psalms of David (zabur), Bible (injeel), and Quran.

Now, if we examine these four scriptures closely, we will find out that all four of these books were revealed in the same geographic area. This area contains Israel, Egypt, and Saudi Arabia. One can easily see that all these countries are not far apart from each other on the map. Torah was revealed on Mount Sinai on the Sinai Peninsula near Egypt, whereas Psalms and Bible were revealed in locations near or in Israel. We all know that Quran was revealed in Saudi Arabia. Now, it is common sense that anyone back then could get all this information just by simply traveling from place to place.

Moreover, Mohammad even had Jewish and Christian allies/enemies so it is common sense that he or his Arab followers could have got educated through them. Besides, naturally we learn about other religions by meeting and debating their followers. So from the above arguments, it is quite evident that the authors of the Quran borrowed all their concepts from the Torah and Bible. This is why there are so many similarities between Bible and the Quran. Now, we see that the recipe to make a Quran is simple. Just borrow concepts from the Torah and Bible, and add some Arab traditions, and there, your Quran is ready!

Many more questions on this theory arise when we closely analyze the facts

1. If Allah named those four books, then why did He forget to name the revelations of India, China, Iran, South America, and other places in the world, in which more than three fourth of total population of the world lived at that time?

2. If Allah wanted to only mention four books, then why did He not mention four books that were revealed in four different corners of the world? All four books He mentioned were all revealed in same area consisting of Israel, Egypt, and Arabia.

3. More importantly, if Allah wanted to name any four books, why did He not give the name of the FIRST revelation? Logically, He should name the first, the last, and any two books in the middle eras, but that is not the case.

4. Many Muslims claim Torah to be the first revelation of Islam, but then question comes,  if Torah was revealed to Moses (Musa), then what revelations were revealed to the previous prophets that came before Moses like Abraham (Ibraheem), Noah (Nuh), and Adam??

5. If there were no revelations given to them, then how can they be considered as prophets?

6. If Adam was the first prophet of Islam, then he should have got the first revelation from Allah, but Muslims consider Adam to be the first human created, not a messenger, then, question arises, why is he considered a prophet in the first place?

7. If Adam was not given any revelation, how were the people, who lived in the era of Adam or a bit later, guided in the absence of any revelation?

8. If Allah can give the name of the first prophet, why cannot He give the name of the first revelation, which is equally important?

This is the biggest proof that modern Quran is not from Allah, otherwise Allah would definitely give us the answers to these questions.

Some sensible Muslims like Syed Abdullah Tariq have accepted Vedas to be the first divine revelation while debating with Arya Samaj scholar Pandit Mahendra Pal Arya. However, there are some fanatics like Zakir Naik who use their false interpretations to twist some verses of Vedas to prove Muhammad’s prophecy in them, but later on doubt Vedas to be the word of God. So, in this case, Zakir Naik falls into his own trap. (Please see the article on prophet in Vedas on this same site). Interestingly, Maulana Abdullah Tariq is the prominent speaker of Peace TV of Zakir Naik! Its up to Zakir Naik, whether he accepts Vedas to be first divine revelation like his scholar Maulana Abdullah Tariq, or announce that Maulana Abdullah Tariq is not scholar and he has committed Shirk by giving Vedas the same status as Quran. Zakir should also apologize to Muslims that he has aired the programs of a Mushrik on his own Peace TV!

That’s apart, Zakir and co make three claims to prove that Quran is the final book, and hence should be followed for eternity.

1) Quran is sent because all earlier revelations have been corrupted by men over time and Quran is unchanged till now and will remain so forever.


a. Shia Muslims claim that original Quran was comprised of some 17000 verses. But now only small part of it is available. Sunnis destine Shia for hell for their claim and call them Kafirs. Vice versa is also seen. Can anyone tell, whose Quran is the final and why?

b. Khoza Muslims claim that Aaga Khan was also divine like Muhammad and he also got revelations.

c. Qadiyanis even refuse to accept Muhammad as their final prophet! They say that Mirza Ghulam Ahmad Qadiyani is the final prophet of Islam. He was also supposed to get Allah’s message on regular basis!

So, since there is no way one can judge which Quran is to follow, should not Allah send a new prophet/revelation?

2) Quran is the final message and others were not because Allah decided to reveal His knowledge in stages since the human mind evolves slowly.


a. So revelations came in stages because human mind was evolving. Can one ask, has human mind stopped evolving now? If no, then new revelation is needed. If yes, then how could most of the revolutionary inventions like electricity, trains and airplanes take place after more than 1000 years of reception of final revelation?

b. Many verses of the Quran are said to be abrogated by the new ones during the lifetime of Muhammad. If abrogated verses were imperfect, Allah becomes imperfect. If abrogated verses too have the reason of human mind’s evolution, it reflects unnatural evolution rate of Arabs because previous revelations like Injeel lasted for around 600 years, but in case of Quran, some verses were canceled within few years of their revelation!

c. It seems human mind was evolving till Muhammad received the last abrogated verse of Quran and then all humans suddenly stopped evolving!

d. In what way, did the human mind evolve from inception till today? Back then humans knew the same basic functions of nature and life as they do today. What new laws did Allah has told us in the Quran, which are not found in previous books? This silly claim helps fanatics like Zakir Naik to add the age of older books to increase the age of Islam, but they can never tell the world about the first Islamic revelation authentically. Our prime message for everyone is to return to Vedas since Quran teaches nothing new from Vedas. Every good thing that the Quran mentions is already present in Vedas.

3) Quran should be followed today since Muhammad has been prophesized in the earlier revelations.

This particular claim is only made by Qadiyani Muslims like Maulana Abdul Haque, and his great disciple Dr Zakir Naik (who claims to be a true Muslim but preaches the Qadiyani ideology through Qadiyani literature, please see http://agniveer.com/645/naikexposed/). Qadiyanis are known for twisting the verses of any holy book in order to prove Muhammad or Mirza Ghulam Ahmad Qadiyani’s prophecy. Forget about Torah and Bible, they went on to claim Muhammad’s prophecy in Buddhist scriptures, Iranian scriptures, and even Vedas.

Now, the fact is that Vedas do not contain any prophecies of Muhammad or anybody else, and they do not contain any history. Please read Introduction to Vedas by Swami Dayanand on http://agniveer.com/2045/introduction-to-vedas/ to know the actual message of Vedas.

Conclusively, we would like to say that the three Abrahamic religions follow the same mechanism. This mechanism is like a caterpillar that keeps gaining length as time progresses in the form of revelations. First, Jews introduced their Jewish scriptures, then Christians added their Bible and claimed it to be the final uncorrupted message of God. Now, Arabs added their Quran, and claimed it to be the final message of Allah since all the earlier revelations like Torah, Psalms, and Bible have been corrupted with the passage of time. Then we witnessed an offshoot of Islam, Qadiyani sect, which has its own final messenger in the form of Mirza Ghulam Ahmad Qadiyani. Today, everyone is confused, which Quran (of 6666 verses or 17000 verses…) is the final edition and which is not.

Finally, if indeed Allah wanted Quran to be the final message for humans, why did He not ensure that the Quran is properly documented within lifetime of Muhammad itself? Why did he wait for at least 20 years after Muhammad’s death for the Quran to get documented? Why did he make the Caliph who got Quran documented murdered by other followers of Islam? Why Muhammad’s wife Aisha and his son-in-law Ali – two of the most prominent companions of Muhammad – bent on killing each other and the Caliph who documented the Quran? Why did he allow certain Hadiths which say that some verses of Quran were eaten by goats and some verses were uttered under influence of Satan?

If Allah was serious enough to make Quran the only and the final word from Him, he would have ensured that thousands of copies of Quran would have been documented within Muhammad’s lifetime itself so that no confusion can ever come. The way He ensured that Vedas be memorized in 8 different methods so that they can be cross-checked anytime and inspired us to start tradition of protecting Vedas which exists even till today.

May Ishwar protect us from such chains of revelations and enlighten us with the real wisdom which did not have any versions following it – the Vedas.